[cdi-dev] [JBoss JIRA] (CDI-348) Clarify which beans "have" bean defining annotations

Joseph Snyder (JIRA) jira-events at lists.jboss.org
Thu Mar 28 10:33:42 EDT 2013


    [ https://issues.jboss.org/browse/CDI-348?page=com.atlassian.jira.plugin.system.issuetabpanels:comment-tabpanel&focusedCommentId=12763756#comment-12763756 ] 

Joseph Snyder commented on CDI-348:
-----------------------------------

Please clarify "inherits a scope from a stereotype".  Does this mean that if there's a scope defined as part of the stereotype that it is not applied to the bean that is annotated with the stereotype?
                
> Clarify which beans "have" bean defining annotations
> ----------------------------------------------------
>
>                 Key: CDI-348
>                 URL: https://issues.jboss.org/browse/CDI-348
>             Project: CDI Specification Issues
>          Issue Type: Clarification
>          Components: Beans
>    Affects Versions: 1.1.PFD
>            Reporter: Jozef Hartinger
>            Assignee: Pete Muir
>            Priority: Blocker
>             Fix For: 1.1.FD
>
>
> {quote}Any bean which has scope type is said to have a bean defining annotation.{quote}
> The spec makes this vague statement and provides two examples which only cover the two simplest cases. What remains unclear is:
> - if a bean class inherits a scope annotation definition from a superclass, should it be discovered in an implicit bean archive?
> - if a bean inherits a scope from a stereotype, should it be discovered in an implicit bean archive?
> - if a producer method / field has a scope annotation but the declaring bean is not a bean with bean defining annotation, whould the producer be discovered?

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