[jboss-user] [JCA/JBoss] - Re: Stateless EJB calling WorkManager directly - legal?
gsniderJBoss
do-not-reply at jboss.com
Wed Mar 12 14:46:29 EDT 2008
Thanks, I assumed I would need to make these calls to an RA. But let's suppose I do that. Will that help my transaction issue?
Will the RA be treated as a resource manager (for inclusion in XA)? In other words, will the following be true if I write and deploy an RA that makes the calls to WorkManager
| 1) A CMT transaction TX1 is created in the EJB via hibernate call.
| 2) the ejb uses the Resource Adapter to schedule work
| 3) A new transaction is created TX2 by the WorkManager?
| 4) TX2 will now participate in the XA transaction?
|
|
| Again a note: cmt transactions are used. I never 'have' programmatic access to TX1. I'm using the MySQL XA driver and have correctly setup the xa datasource.
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