[webbeans-dev] Re: Implicit bean clarification

[Gavin King]

Is there some reason why you should *not* be able to look it up using
Managed.resolveByXXX()?

Or is the question really: can I get one of these things using
Managed.resolveByXXX() if I have never injected it anywhere?


On Thu, May 7, 2009 at 1:43 AM, Pete Muir <pmuir at redhat.com> wrote:
> Really, the query is whether an implicit bean can be looked by
> manager.resolveByXXX() - this is necessary to know for the TCK. If it is not
> required (undefined) or required I think the spec should say...
>
> On 7 May 2009, at 03:20, Gavin King wrote:
>
>> Well, it doesn't really mean anything in particular...
>>
>> On Sun, Mar 15, 2009 at 7:53 PM, Pete Muir <pmuir at redhat.com> wrote:
>>>
>>> Gavin,
>>>
>>> I think it would be helpful if the spec had an explicit definition of
>>> "implicit bean" as this is not (AFAIK) a well known term...
>>>
>>> Thanks :-)
>>>
>>> --
>>> Pete Muir
>>> http://www.seamframework.org
>>> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Pete
>>>
>>>
>>
>>
>>
>> --
>> Gavin King
>> gavin.king at gmail.com
>> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Gavin
>> http://hibernate.org
>> http://seamframework.org
>
> --
> Pete Muir
> http://www.seamframework.org
> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Pete
>
>



-- 
Gavin King
gavin.king at gmail.com
http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Gavin
http://hibernate.org
http://seamframework.org