The answer is yes. I think 4.3.1 explains this rather clearly:

Formally, a bean X is said to specialize another bean Y if either:
There isn't a crystal clear example of #2 in this section (it's implied by references to types in previous examples).

In your case X = Jsf2CodiConfig, Z = Jsf1CodiConfig and Y = CodiConfig

X wins.

-Dan

On Thu, Nov 25, 2010 at 5:51 PM, Mark Struberg <struberg@yahoo.de> wrote:
Hi folks!

I have the following situation and couldn't find a _clear_ answer to my question (various hints, but as I said: not really clear):


class CodiConfig

@Specializes
class Jsf1CodiConfig extends CodiConfig

@Specializes
class Jsf2CodiConfig extends Jsf1CodiConfig


If I
@Inject CodiConfig cc;

is it well defined in the spec that I must get Jsf2CodiConfig?

Imo it should be, but before I 'fix' this in OWB, I need an ok that this transitive behaviour is conform with the spec. And of course that Weld is behaving in the same way ;)

txs and LieGrue,
strub




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Dan Allen
Principal Software Engineer, Red Hat | Author of Seam in Action
Registered Linux User #231597

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