[cdi-dev] [JBoss JIRA] (CDI-348) Clarify which beans "have" bean defining annotations
Joseph Snyder (JIRA)
jira-events at lists.jboss.org
Thu Mar 28 10:33:42 EDT 2013
[ https://issues.jboss.org/browse/CDI-348?page=com.atlassian.jira.plugin.system.issuetabpanels:comment-tabpanel&focusedCommentId=12763756#comment-12763756 ]
Joseph Snyder commented on CDI-348:
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Please clarify "inherits a scope from a stereotype". Does this mean that if there's a scope defined as part of the stereotype that it is not applied to the bean that is annotated with the stereotype?
> Clarify which beans "have" bean defining annotations
> ----------------------------------------------------
>
> Key: CDI-348
> URL: https://issues.jboss.org/browse/CDI-348
> Project: CDI Specification Issues
> Issue Type: Clarification
> Components: Beans
> Affects Versions: 1.1.PFD
> Reporter: Jozef Hartinger
> Assignee: Pete Muir
> Priority: Blocker
> Fix For: 1.1.FD
>
>
> {quote}Any bean which has scope type is said to have a bean defining annotation.{quote}
> The spec makes this vague statement and provides two examples which only cover the two simplest cases. What remains unclear is:
> - if a bean class inherits a scope annotation definition from a superclass, should it be discovered in an implicit bean archive?
> - if a bean inherits a scope from a stereotype, should it be discovered in an implicit bean archive?
> - if a producer method / field has a scope annotation but the declaring bean is not a bean with bean defining annotation, whould the producer be discovered?
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