[jboss-user] [JCA/JBoss] - Re: Stateless EJB calling WorkManager directly - legal?

[gsniderJBoss]

Thanks, I assumed I would need to make these calls to an RA.  But let's suppose I do that.  Will that help my transaction issue?

Will the RA be treated as a resource manager (for inclusion in XA)?  In other words, will the following be true if I write and deploy an RA that makes the calls to WorkManager


  | 1) A CMT transaction TX1 is created in the EJB via hibernate call. 
  | 2) the ejb uses the Resource Adapter to schedule work
  | 3) A new transaction is created TX2 by the WorkManager? 
  | 4) TX2 will now participate in the XA transaction?
  | 
  | 
  | Again a note:  cmt transactions are used.  I never 'have' programmatic access to TX1.   I'm using the MySQL XA driver and have correctly setup the xa datasource.

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