[webbeans-dev] Re: Implicit bean clarification

[Pete Muir]

On 7 May 2009, at 13:58, Gavin King wrote:

> Is there some reason why you should *not* be able to look it up using
> Managed.resolveByXXX()?
>
> Or is the question really: can I get one of these things using
> Managed.resolveByXXX() if I have never injected it anywhere?

Right. The way OWB implemented implicit beans was that they were never  
resolvable (hence why this issue came up for clarification).

>
>
>
> On Thu, May 7, 2009 at 1:43 AM, Pete Muir <pmuir at redhat.com> wrote:
>> Really, the query is whether an implicit bean can be looked by
>> manager.resolveByXXX() - this is necessary to know for the TCK. If  
>> it is not
>> required (undefined) or required I think the spec should say...
>>
>> On 7 May 2009, at 03:20, Gavin King wrote:
>>
>>> Well, it doesn't really mean anything in particular...
>>>
>>> On Sun, Mar 15, 2009 at 7:53 PM, Pete Muir <pmuir at redhat.com> wrote:
>>>>
>>>> Gavin,
>>>>
>>>> I think it would be helpful if the spec had an explicit  
>>>> definition of
>>>> "implicit bean" as this is not (AFAIK) a well known term...
>>>>
>>>> Thanks :-)
>>>>
>>>> --
>>>> Pete Muir
>>>> http://www.seamframework.org
>>>> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Pete
>>>>
>>>>
>>>
>>>
>>>
>>> --
>>> Gavin King
>>> gavin.king at gmail.com
>>> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Gavin
>>> http://hibernate.org
>>> http://seamframework.org
>>
>> --
>> Pete Muir
>> http://www.seamframework.org
>> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Pete
>>
>>
>
>
>
> -- 
> Gavin King
> gavin.king at gmail.com
> http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Gavin
> http://hibernate.org
> http://seamframework.org

--
Pete Muir
http://www.seamframework.org
http://in.relation.to/Bloggers/Pete