The answer is yes. I think 4.3.1 explains this rather clearly:
Formally, a bean X is said to specialize another bean Y if either:
- X directly specializes Y, or
- a bean Z exists, such that X directly specializes Z and Z specializes
Y.
There isn't a crystal clear example of #2 in this section (it's implied by
references to types in previous examples).
In your case X = Jsf2CodiConfig, Z = Jsf1CodiConfig and Y = CodiConfig
X wins.
-Dan
On Thu, Nov 25, 2010 at 5:51 PM, Mark Struberg <struberg(a)yahoo.de> wrote:
Hi folks!
I have the following situation and couldn't find a _clear_ answer to my
question (various hints, but as I said: not really clear):
class CodiConfig
@Specializes
class Jsf1CodiConfig extends CodiConfig
@Specializes
class Jsf2CodiConfig extends Jsf1CodiConfig
If I
@Inject CodiConfig cc;
is it well defined in the spec that I must get Jsf2CodiConfig?
Imo it should be, but before I 'fix' this in OWB, I need an ok that this
transitive behaviour is conform with the spec. And of course that Weld is
behaving in the same way ;)
txs and LieGrue,
strub
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Dan Allen
Principal Software Engineer, Red Hat | Author of Seam in Action
Registered Linux User #231597
http://mojavelinux.com
http://mojavelinux.com/seaminaction
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