[JBossWS] - Can I point a wsconsume-generated client to a local WSDL fil
by Brad Marshall
I am calling an Axis/Tomcat web service with a JAX-WS client proxy generated by wsconsume (from JBossWs 2.0.1 GA) run against our hand-coded WSDL file. When we execute the client, the constructor of the xxxService class is obtaining the WSDL from the Web service (via the ?WSDL command) and performing a dynamic element binding at run-time (at least we think that?s what happening).
The problem is that the Axis Web service is returning a WSDL with syntax errors and outright mistakes. This isn?t a problem with a client proxy generated by the Axis WSDL2Java from the hand-coded WSDL. The WSDL2Java client classes are statically bound and do not access the service?s WSDL at run time. WSDL2Java-generated clients have been in production for more than a year without any difficulty. The wsconsume-generated client throws an exception and terminates when it encounters the first error in the WSDL generated by the Axis run-time ? I never get out of the constructor of the xxxService class.
Yet wsconsume had no difficulty digesting the hand-coded WSDL. We?ve studied the WSDL for a very long time now, and do not believe there is an error in its design. Indeed, the fact that it works with WSDL2Java-generated clients shows that the WSDL is designed properly. We are convinced that the AXIS Web Service run-time is making an error generating the WSDL on demand.
Can I easily override the Service class?s retrieval of the WSDL from the Web service and point it instead at a local copy of the WSDL file? In out environment, every caller of the Web service also implements their own Web service with the identical interface, so we can enforce a rule that they have a copy local of the valid WSDL file.
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18 years, 6 months
[EJB/JBoss] - removing bean lock and it has tx set
by errobins
I am using jboss-4.2.1 on linux (2.6.9-55.0.6) with the jdk1.5.0_12 release. My application makes extensive use of Stateless Session Beans and CMP Entity Beans (both version 2.1). I am using a custom container configuration that is based on the "Standard CMP 2.x EntityBean" container configuration, but uses commit option A.
Under load/transactional contention, I am encountering the "removing bean lock and it has tx set" IllegalStateException. The documentation states that this error is usually the result of an incorrectly implemented primary key class. I do not believe that this is what is causing my error for two reasons:
1) My pk classes are generated by xdoclet (version 1.2.3, after they fixed the bugs related to incorrect pk class generation) and I have examined them closely and run unit tests on them and they seem to work just fine.
2) The IllegalStateExceptions do not occur at predictable points during execution. They seem to occur almost randomly - though only when there is transactional contention on a bean. Also, the exceptions are thrown *MUCH* more frequently on a four processor machine (pretty often) than they are on a single processor machine (almost never).
I have turned on trace logging and have observed that the error is typically thrown after the trace log message documenting the end of the call to EntityInstanceInterceptor.invoke() but before the trace log message documenting the end of the EntityLockInterceptor.invoke() method (i.e., it seems to be occurring in the removeLockRef() call in the last finally block in the EntityLockInterceptor.invoke() method. The very strange thing is that in the action on this bean immediately prior to the one that causes the error, I see the EntityInstanceInterceptor end invoke message followed by the EntityLockInterceptor end invoke message, but with no intervening removing lock ref message (and no errors or exception reported in there either). This i sstrange to me, because I do not understand why that remove lock ref message would not be hitting the log since the two messages on either side of it are.
I can provide a snippet from the relevant section of the log if anyone would find it useful.
Any help is greatly appreciated.
Thank you!
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18 years, 6 months
[JBoss Seam] - Re: Trouble Getting the Most Basic SeamTest to Work
by neilac333
I was actually going to try that next, but I somehow managed to get the test to work. Here is the classpath I got in my Ant script to get things to work:
| <path id="seam.test.class.path.libs">
| <pathelement path="${seam-hibernate.lib.dir}/bootstrap" />
| <fileset dir="${seam-hibernate.lib.dir}" includes="jboss-embedded-all.jar,thirdparty-all.jar"/>
| <fileset dir="${sun-jsf.lib.dir}"/>
| <fileset dir="${commons.lib.dir}"/>
| <fileset dir="${seam-hibernate.lib.dir}" excludes="jboss-container.jar,hibernate*,jboss-seam.jar"/>
| <fileset dir="${seam-hibernate.lib.dir}" includes="hibernate*,jboss-archive-browsing.jar"/>
| <fileset dir="${seam-hibernate.lib.dir}" includes="jboss-seam.jar"/>
| </path>
|
...where seam-hibernate.lib.dir is the lib directory that comes with Seam.
I based this on the wiki sample which I believe you wrote, Pete. I don't know why it works, but it works.
Now I am having another issue regarding DBUnit in my test that I may have to post later.
Anyway, thanks for your help. And congrats to you and the guys on Seam 2.0 GA.
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18 years, 6 months