"vickyk" wrote : "gsniderJBoss" wrote : If a stateless EJB gets a
JBossWorkManager (see code below) without going through an RA, should everything still
work?
| |
| I am not able to understand why you are using the workmanager through the EJB , it
should be used by the RA .
| It does not make any sense to me using the workmanager through the EJB .
What he is doing will work (assuming he's not breaking other ejb rules),
but it's not very portable. :-)
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