NOTE: I don't have a problem per se with there being a transaction timeout in the ActivationSpec. But this is very specialised. One example would be where the inbound rar does transaction inflow. In that case, it could use the ActivationSpec to pass this parameter to the ExecutionContext.setTransactionTimeout(). But in the above case, it is more likely that the transaction timeout config would be coming from the same place as the inbound transaction? View the original post : http://www.jboss.com/index.html?module=bb&op=viewtopic&p=4013662#... Reply to the post : http://www.jboss.com/index.html?module=bb&op=posting&mode=reply&a...